NAPSR Final Exam done on may 2015 latest [ next 80 questions ]
81. What do enteric coatings do?
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A.
facilitate vomiting
B.
help drugs dissolve in the stomach
C. help drugs enter the bloodstream more
quickly
D.
prevent dissolution in the
stomach
82. What is the duration of
exclusivity for orphan drugs?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C.
7 years
D. 15 years
83. What do National Account
Managers do?
A.
act as the sales reps’ primary point of contact with the rest of the
corporation
B.
manage the FDA approval process
C. negotiate contracts with MCOs and PBMs
D. sell only to pharmacies
84. What does it usually mean if
a drug recall is voluntary?
A.
Pharmacies may choose whether to return the drug or dispense it.
B.
The FDA has determined that the drug is perfectly safe. but ineffective.
C.
The manufacturer has
recalled the product on its own. but negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
D.
The manufacturer has recalled the product without negotiating with the FDA.
85. Which phase of clinical
trials is also known as the pivotal phase?
A.
Phase I
B. Phase III
C
Phase IV
D.
Phase IX
86. During which phase of
clinical trials is the new drug’s safety and effectiveness first tested in the
target group?
A.
preclinical
B.
Phase I
C.
Phase II
D.
Phase III
87. How do antacids work?
A.
by increasing blood flow to the stomach
B. by lowering gastric pH
C. by raising gastric pH
D.
by suppressing cholesterol formation by the liver
88. What is one of the biggest
time wasters for a pharmaceutical sales rep?
A.
Caterers
B.
Pharcists
C.
receptionists
D. travel time
89. What happens when equilibrium
is reached?
A. equal numbers of molecules cross the membrane in both directions
B.
molecules stop moving
C. the concentration gradient decreases
indefinitely
D. the concentration gradient increases
indefinitely
90. What are the most common
vectors used in gene therapy?
A. autologous antigens
B.
liposomes
C.
naked DNA
D.
viruses
91. What is the percentage fee
that the dispenser pays the wholesaler for distribution?
A.
margin fee
B.
recharge
C.
standard fee
D. upcharge
92. What is the difference
between a chronic (or continuing) reaction, and a delayed reaction?
A.
Chronic reactions are exaggerated. whereas delayed reactions are idiosyncratic.
B. Chronic reactions occur only during
treatment. whereas delayed reactions only occur during withdrawal.
C.
Chronic reactions persist
for a long time. whereas delayed reactions take some time to develop.
D. Delayed reactions are always idiosyncratic.
but chronic reactions are not.
93 What is clinical effect?
A.
federally funded research condition
B. the effect of maximum dosage
C. the response produced by a medication
D.
the use of treatment drugs in chemotherapy
94. Which of the following is an
example of noncompliance?
A.
a patient forgetting to
take a drug at a specified time of day
B.
a patient taking a drug. but only because it has been court-mandated
C. a pharmacist dispensing a generic
equivalent of a drug instead of the brand name
D.
a physician refusing to prescribe a drug because he or she does not trust the
clinical studies on it
95. What is the average
circulation time of blood?
A.
about a minute
B.
about 5 minutes
C.
about 5 to 10 minutes depending on the patient’s age and health conditions
D.
about 10 minutes
96. What is one way in which
pharmaceutical selling is different from selling in most other industries?
A.
In pharmaceutical sales. the decisions-makers. consumers. and payers are
usually the same entity.
B. Pharmaceutical selling takes less time
because doctors are so busy.
C. Representatives do NOT sell to the
end user of the product.
D.
Representatives DO sell to the end user of the product.
97. From what types of entities
do primary wholesale distributors buy most of their drugs?
A.
brokerages
B.
buying clubs
C. manufacturers
D.
physicians
98.What is the Office of the
Inspector General (01G)?
A.
a department in pharmaceutical companies
B.
an arm of the Department
of Health and Human Services
C.
an arm of the European Medicines Agency D an arm of the FDA
99. What are doctors required to
consider when deciding whether or not to prescribe a particular drug?
A.
quantity of life over quality of life
B. that no drugs with adverse effects should
ever be used
C. the inferiority of OTC drugs
D.
the severity of the disorder
being treated and the effect it has on the patient’s quality of life
100. Which entity assigns a new
drug its generic names?
A.
the drug’s inventor
B. the Food and Drug Administration
C.
the United States Adopted
Name Council
D.
the United States Pharmaceutical Council
101. Drugs can be used days
beyond their expiration date.
A. 2-7 days. depending on the most current
monograph.
B. 2-90 days. depending on state laws
C.
7-90 days. depending on the type of drug and its therapeutic class.
D. none of these
102. What is necessary for a drug
to be excreted extensively via the kidneys?
A. The drug must be water-soluble. and not bind too tightly to proteins in
the bloodstream.
B.
The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and be non-water-soluble.
C.
The drug must have a phospholipid bilayer and bind well to proteins in the
bloodstream.
D.
The drug must not be water-soluble.
103. Which organization or
individual initiates the clinical trial and finances the study?
A.
clinical research organization
B.
investigator
C. researcher
D. sponsor
104. The name describes the
atomic or molecular structure of a drug.
A.
chemical
B. generic
C.
pharmaceutical
D.
proprietary
105. Under PhRMA Code, is it
acceptable or unacceptable for a pharmaceutical sales rep to take a physician
and the physician’s spouse to a fundraising dinner?
A.
acceptable if only the physician attends
B.
acceptable if only the physician attends. and the total is under $100
C.
acceptable if the total is under $100
D. unacceptable
106. The Hatch-Waxman Act is
considered the most significant drug-related affecting the pharmaceutical
industry since 1962.
A.
experiment
B.
legislation
C.
process
D.
research
107. What term denotes the the
extent, quality, or degree to which a substance is poisonous or harmful to the
body?
A.
caliber
B.
chronicity
C.
indication
D. toxicity
108. What issue has MOST
encouraged consumers’ desire to see more OTC medications?
A. a weaker patients’ rights movement
B. lack of insurance coverage
C. less reliance on the Internet
D.
proliferation of herbal remedies
109. What is the degree to which
a medication produces a therapeutic effect?
A.
diffusion
B.
efficacy
C.
protease
D. vector
110. What is the most important
benefit of electronic prescribing?
A.
Choice
B. cost
C.
inquiries
D.
safety
111. When does the FDA regulate
generic drugs?
A. only if they are branded generics
B.
only if they have been contested
C.
always
D
never
112. Which phase of trials
largely determines the clinical dose?
A.
preclinical trials
B.
Phase II trials
C.
Phase III trials
D.
Phase IV trials
113. What is an advantage of
inactivated vaccines over attenuated vaccines?
A. Inactivated vaccines are less expensive to
prepare.
B.
Inactivated vaccines have a higher probability of eliciting the desired
immunological response.
C.
Inactivated vaccines have
a more stable shelf life.
D. Inactivated vaccines only require a single
dose.
114. Which medical term denotes a
low supply of oxygen due to low blood flow?
A.
potentiation
B. ischemia
C. TID
D.
titration
115. What are the two main types
of prescription drug marketing?
A.
(1) marketing to insurance companies. and (2) marketing to pharmacies
B. (1) PBM marketing. and (2) marketing to
governments
C. (1) professional physician promotions. and (2) direct-to-consumer
advertising
D. (1) publicly-funded marketing. and (2)
physician-funded marketing
116. What is the site of delivery
for subcutaneous injections?
A.
fatty tissue beneath the
surface of the skin
B. lymphatic tissue
C. muscle tissue
D. the stomach, via a special type of needle
117. What must be contained in
the Description section of a pharmaceutical package insert?
A.
adverse effects
B.
mechanism of action
C.
pharmacokinetics
D.
the proprietary name and
the established name
118. What is the study of a
medication’s effects as it travels through the body?
A.
pharmacodynamics
B.
pharmacogenetics
C. pharmacogenomics
D. pharmacokinetics
119. Customers purchase products
from people they like, trust, and respect. This is calledthe
A. closing of the sale
B. first time advantage
C.
likeability factor
D.
power of knowledge
120. What is penicillin’s primary
mechanism of action?
A.
It disturbs bacterial cell
wall synthesis.
B
It inhibits the production of viruses.
C.
It prevents proper DNA replication.
D.
It sends a messenger to the bone marrow to produce extra white blood cells
121. According to your manual,
how has the U.S. healthcare marketplace changed in the last few decades?
A. Fewer and fewer prescription drugs have
been made available as OTCs.
B.
Managed care has been
increasingly replaced by more patient-centered approaches.
C.
The aging Baby Boomer generation has begun demanding more personalized
attention.
D.
There has been decreased emphasis on preventive health.
122. How does pharmaceutical
marketing help narrow the treatment gap?
A.
It encourages patients to
take more active roles in their healthcare.
B.
It makes doctors more skeptical of the pharmaceutical industry.
C.
It makes patients more skeptical of their doctors’ opinions.
D. all of these
123. What do immunosuppressive
agents do?
A.
decrease risk of infection
B.
increase risk of infection
C. reduce the risk of rejection of foreign bodies
D.
treat psoriasis
124. What types of drugs are EGFR
inhibitors?
A.
antineoplastics
B.
cardiovascular agents
C.
CNS agents
D.
mitotic inhibitors
125. Which of the following means
outside of the living body?
A.
en vivo
B. ex vitro
C. ex vivo
D.
intra vivo
126. The FDA requirements for
nutraceuticals and medicinal herbs are just as stringent as for
pharmaceuticals.
A.
TRUE
B. FALSE
127. What is the estimated net
gain of private-sector healthcare’s contributions to increased U.S. life
expectancy?
A.
$5-10 billion
B.
$40-50 billion
C.
$800-900 billion
D.$ 2-5 trillion
128. Which statement is TRUE
regarding post-approval drug monitoring?
A. All side effects are determined during
clinical trials.
B. Drug manufacturers are only required to
report adverse effects if they are severe or life-threatening.
C.
Drug manufacturers are only required to report adverse effects if they have
been proven in clinical studies.
D.
The FDA can choose to
withdraw their approval if new evidence arises.
129. Which term denotes when
tolerance to one medication causes increased tolerance to another medication?
A.
cell tolerance
B. cross-tolerance
C.
indicated tolerance
D.
minimized tolerance
130. Patents expire __ years from
the date of filing.
A.
ten
B. fifteen
C. twenty
D.
thirty
131. After a trade-name drug’s patent
expires, how may generic versions of it be sold?
A. only under the branded generic name
B. only under the generic name
C.
only under the original trade name
D.
under the original trade name or a generic name
132. What is required for a new
pharmaceutical to be considered a viable therapy?
A.
It causes no serious adverse effects.
B.
It causes no side effects.
C. It has an active placebo.
D.
It is more effective
and/or causes fewer serious adverse effects than other drugs on the market.
133. Under the AMA guidelines,
who is ultimately responsible for minimizing conflicts of interest?
A. doctors
B. lawyers and office managers
C.
pharmaceutical companies
D. sales representatives
134. The act of dispensing a
pharmaceutical alternative for the product prescribed is
A.
alternative licensure
B. equivalence practice
C. necessitated substitution
D.
pharmaceutical
substitution
135. What does it mean if a drug
is said to have a wide margin of safety?
A.
Its safety levels have yet to be adequately verified.
B.
Its safety varies widely among different types of patients.
C. There is a greater chance of severe or
life-threatening side effects.
D.
There is a lower chance of
severe or life-threatening side effects.
136. Which of the following is
the correct medical acronym for effective dose?
A.
DE
B.
ED
C.
EFD
D.
eff D
137. Why is one group of subjects
given an active drug, while another group only receives a placebo?
A. to assess patients’ expectations
B.
to assess the drug’s
effectiveness
C.
to assess the professionalism of the study staff
D.
to assess the subjects’ demographics
138. A generic version is likely
to have some inactive ingredients that are different from those of the original
drug.
A.
TRUE
B.
FALSE
139. Which of the following is an
example of a functional value?
A. I drink Coca-Cola because I am a citizen of
the world.
B. I drink Coca-Cola because I like looking like
a traditionalist.
C. I drink Coca-Cola because I like the taste.
D. I drink Coca-Cola because it is an
international brand.
140. Where are most drugs
metabolized?
A. interstitial spaces
B. liver
C.
stomach
D
. the bloodstream
141. What is essential to the
ethical requirement that subjects be selected fairly?
A. Selection criteria should be well-supported
by documented evidence.
B. Studies should make every attempt to
conduct research on subjects who are underprivileged and in need of medical
attention.
C.
Subjects should be
selected based on scientific objectives.
D.
all of these
142. Which of the following is
the most appropriate salutation for a cover letter if you cannot find a contact
name?
A.
Dear Personnel Department.
B.
Dear Sir or Madam,
C.
Dear Sir
D.To
Whom It May Concern.
143. What is part of becoming an
indispensable pharmaceutical sales rep?
A.
asking for feedback
B.
giving the doctors anything they ask for to prescribe your products
C.
keeping your market share goals the same each term
D.
not bothering busy doctors in hospitals
144. Which of the following is
NOT typically included in the indications and usage section of the package
insert information?
A.
diseases or conditions that the drug is approved to treat
B. the drug’s active metabolites
C.
the drug’s recommended usual dosage
D.
the drug’s usual dosage range
145. Which term denotes the
practice of classifying physicians and other potential prescribers by
anticipated prescription volume?
A.
conditioning
B.
deciling
C.
detailing
D.
private labeling
146. What makes a drug eligible
for fast track approval from the FDA?
A.
It is a generic that has already been approved as a branded drug.
B.
It is a new drug.
C.
It is less expensive than what is currently on the market.
D.
It treats patients with a
serious. life-threatening condition.
147. In the gastrointestinal
tract, help break up tablets to ensure full release of the active
pharmaceutical ingredient.
A.
binders
B. disintegrants
C.
dispersing agents
D.
lubricants
148. According to your manual,
what does the PDRP do?
A.
It educates patients on their treatment options.
B.
It expands sales representatives’ access to patient information.
C.
It improves communication between sales representatives and patients in
doctors’ offices.
D.
It limits sales
representatives’ abilities to see individual physicians’ prescribing data.
149. What are the components of
the central nervous system?
A.
the brain and sense organs
B. the brain and spinal cord
C.
the brain. spinal cord. and peripheral nervous system
D. the spinal cord and sense organs
150. Which term denotes the
origin or cause of a medical condition?
A.
cytology
B. discovery
C. etiology
D.
pathology
151. Patients diagnosed with Type
1 diabetes…
A. …do not produce enough insulin because they
do not have enough B cells.
B. …have an autoimmune disease.
C. …produce enough insulin. but it is not as
effective.
D. …rely on insulin from porcine sources.
152. Which DTC pharmaceutical
marketing tactic is permitted in European countries?
A. disease state ads
B.
branded billboards and disease state ads
C.
branded highway billboards
D.
branded radio ads
153. What is one way in which
psychologists DIFFER from psychiatrists?
A. Psychologists are more concerned with
subconscious memories than conscious ones.
B. Psychologists deal more with
emotional than physical issues.
C. Psychologists deal more with physical issues
than emotional ones.
D. Psychologists do not have graduate degrees.
154. What are PBMs?
A.
governmental organizations that provide healthcare
B.
organizations that design marketing campaigns
C. organizations that negotiate between
pharmaceutical companies and large drug purchasers
D.
organizations that write FDA new drug applications
155. How does the Hatch-Waxman
Act protect research-based drug manufacturers?
A. by limiting the competition
B.
by making it easier to bring generic drugs to market
C. by providing a 30-month cooling off
period
D.
by requiring the FDA to only look at bioavailability studies when approving an
ANDA
156. What is the process of
adjusting drug doses to achieve the maximum positive therapeutic effects while
minimizing adverse or side effects?
A.
homeostatic maximization
B.
steady state administration
C.Sustained
release
D.
Titration
157. Which of the following is
studied more in pharmacodynamics than in pharmacokinetics?
A.
absorption. Distribution metabolism and excretion
B.
dose-response effects
C.
the transportation of the
drug to the specific site for drug-receptor interaction
D. the way the human body deals with a drug
after it has been administered
158. How does the healthy human
immune system use MHC markers?
A. Substances with MHC markers are discerned
as foreign and targeted for destruction.
B. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as
foreign and quarantined in the liver.
C. Substances with MHC markers as discerned as
foreign and quarantined in the pancreas.
D.
Substances without MHC
markers are discerned as foreign and targeted for destruction.
159. What is a behi
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